FAA Private Pilot Test

The FAA gives you 150 minutes to take 60 test questions.
You should answer these 60 questions within 150 minutes.
The passing grade is 70% or better. Good luck!
Your Test Time Remaining is: minutes

1. (Refer to Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?

Figure 17
Figure 17

3501

2. Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a

3158

3. How far will you travel if you fly at 100 miles per hour for 2 hours and 30 minutes?

9956

4. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

3226

5. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

3717

6. (Refer to Figure 22.) What is the estimated time en route from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4)? The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots.

Figure 22
Figure 22

3540

7. What should pilots state when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?

3527

8. What is one purpose of wing flaps?

3220

9. During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?

3658

10. What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

3505

11. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

3108

12. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

3091

13. (Refer to Figure 21.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation is 10° east.

Figure 21
Figure 21

3538

14. (Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?

Figure 27
Figure 27

3576

15. When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

4033

16. Glass cockpit aircraft refer to

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17. A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,800 feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude it is determined the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle is 1,980 feet. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What would be the best choice?

4071

18. (Refer to Figures 24 and 28.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct?

Figure 24
Figure 24

Figure 28
Figure 28

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19. Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?

3431

20. VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

3141

21. VSO is defined as the

3010

22. (Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

Figure 27
Figure 27

3575

23. A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least

3428

24. Pilots and/or flight crewmembers involved in NMAC occurrences are urged to report each incident immediately:

4088

25. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

3241

26. What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

3443

27. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

4012

28. How fast are you flying if you travel 3 miles in 2 minutes?

9954

29. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

3126

30. VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

3719

31. A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by

4073

32. A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is

3460

33. A pilot operating under BasicMed is restricted to flying

4118

34. What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

3973

35. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

4029

36. When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?

4060

37. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

3003

38. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

3387

39. The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

3384

40. A VORTAC station is represented by

4080

41. Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

4014

42. (Refer to Figure 36.) What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?

Figure 36
Figure 36

3683

43. Once you have determined magnetic heading, compass heading is found by applying

9970

44. If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

3804

45. (Refer to Figure 21.) Which public use airport(s) depicted are indicated as having fuel?

Figure 21
Figure 21

3635

46. Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?

3447

47. AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to

3499

48. (Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?

Figure 4
Figure 4

3272

49. (Refer to Figure 260, area D.) The visibility in central New York just west of Circle D is mostly

Figure 260
Figure 260

5108

50. (Refer to Figure 36.) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway (6, 29, or 32) is acceptable for use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?

Figure 36
Figure 36

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51. (Refer to Figure 21.) What course should be selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS) to make a direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication?

Figure 21
Figure 21

3539

52. How fast are you flying if you travel 18 miles in 8 minutes?

9957

53. When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

3827

54. (Refer to Figure 26, area 5.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?

Figure 26
Figure 26

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55. (Refer to Figure 28, illustration 5.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?

Figure 28
Figure 28

3579

56. Which V-speed represents best-angle-of-climb speed?

4143

57. Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's

3991

58. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

3852

59. The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

3208

60. A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as

4172