FAA Private Pilot Test

The FAA gives you 150 minutes to take 60 test questions.
You should answer these 60 questions within 150 minutes.
The passing grade is 70% or better. Good luck!
Your Test Time Remaining is: minutes

1. (Refer to Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?

A. 230° true at 39 knots. B. 230° magnetic at 56 knots. C. 230° true at 56 knots.

Figure 17

2. Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a

A. magnetic heading of 0° through 179°. B. magnetic course of 0° through 179°. C. true course of 0° through 179°.

3. How far will you travel if you fly at 100 miles per hour for 2 hours and 30 minutes?

A. 150 miles. B. 230 miles. C. 250 miles.

4. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

A. decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density. B. decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density. C. increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

5. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A. The other aircraft is crossing to the left. B. The other aircraft is flying away from you. C. The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

6. (Refer to Figure 22.) What is the estimated time en route from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4)? The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots.

A. 38 minutes. B. 30 minutes. C. 34 minutes.

Figure 22

7. What should pilots state when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?

A. The intended route of flight radio frequencies. B. The intended route of flight and destination. C. The address of the pilot in command.

8. What is one purpose of wing flaps?

A. To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed. B. To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls. C. To decrease wing area to vary the lift.

9. During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?

A. The owner or operator. B. The pilot in command. C. The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection.

10. What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

A. Magnetic direction and knots. B. Magnetic direction and miles per hour. C. True direction and knots.

11. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

A. when the clearance states "at pilot's discretion." B. an emergency. C. if the clearance contains a restriction.

12. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A. Glider. B. Airship. C. Aircraft refueling other aircraft.

13. (Refer to Figure 21.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation is 10° east.

A. 002°. B. 012°. C. 352°.

Figure 21

14. (Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?

A. 1645 PST. B. 1745 PST. C. 1845 PST.

Figure 27

15. When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

A. When visibility is less than 1 mile. B. When parallel runways are in use. C. When departing from a runway intersection.

16. Glass cockpit aircraft refer to

A. those with GPS with moving map display and an autopilot. B. generally an aircraft with digital instrumentation exclusively. C. aircraft with both digital and limited number of analog instruments.

17. A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,800 feet. The temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude it is determined the takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle is 1,980 feet. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What would be the best choice?

A. Takeoff to the west because the headwind will give the extra climb-out time needed. B. Try a takeoff without the passengers to make sure the climb is adequate. C. Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance.

18. (Refer to Figures 24 and 28.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct?

A. 1. B. 7. C. 8.

Figure 24

Figure 28

19. Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?

A. Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby increasing lift. B. Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness. C. Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.

20. VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

A. 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace. B. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes. C. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.

21. V_SO is defined as the

A. stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. B. stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration. C. stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed.

22. (Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

A. 2030Z. B. 2130Z. C. 2230Z.

Figure 27

23. A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least

A. 10 knots. B. 15 knots. C. 25 knots.

24. Pilots and/or flight crewmembers involved in NMAC occurrences are urged to report each incident immediately:

A. By cell phone to the nearest Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) as this is an emergency. B. To local law enforcement. C. By radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC Facility or FSS.

25. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

A. Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating. B. Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating. C. Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.

26. What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

A. Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights. B. Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water. C. The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

27. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

A. fuel strainer drain. B. lowest point in the fuel system. C. fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

28. How fast are you flying if you travel 3 miles in 2 minutes?

A. 60 miles per hour. B. 90 miles per hour. C. 12 miles per hour.

29. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

A. Recreational Pilot Certificate. B. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. C. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

30. VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

A. at a higher airspeed. B. with a steeper descent. C. the same as during daytime.

31. A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by

A. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud. B. breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation. C. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.

32. A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is

A. an outlook briefing. B. a forecast briefing. C. a prognostic briefing.

33. A pilot operating under BasicMed is restricted to flying

A. piston-engine aircraft. B. fixed-gear aircraft. C. at or below 250 knots indicated airspeed.

34. What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

A. 14 CFR Part 91.403. B. 14 CFR Part 43.7. C. 14 CFR Part 61.113.

35. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

A. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. B. No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. C. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

36. When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?

A. 7200. B. 7400. C. 7600.

37. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

A. Normal, utility, acrobatic. B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider. C. Landplane, seaplane.

38. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

A. Altimeter will indicate .15 inches Hg higher. B. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher. C. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

39. The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

A. terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night. B. warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain. C. the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.

40. A VORTAC station is represented by

A. A single dot inside a square. B. A single dot inside a hexagon. C. A single dot inside a hexagon with tabs on three of the sides.

41. Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

A. NOTAMs. B. Chart Supplement. C. Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.

42. (Refer to Figure 36.) What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?

A. 19 knots. B. 23 knots. C. 26 knots.

Figure 36

43. Once you have determined magnetic heading, compass heading is found by applying

A. wind correction angle. B. magnetic variation. C. deviation error.

44. If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

A. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower. B. Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings. C. Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport.

45. (Refer to Figure 21.) Which public use airport(s) depicted are indicated as having fuel?

A. Minot Intl. (area 1). B. Minot Intl. (area 1) and Garrison (area 2). C. Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) and Garrison (area 2).

Figure 21

46. Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?

A. Rain-induced fog. B. Upslope fog. C. Steam fog.

47. AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to

A. All pilots. B. only IFR pilots. C. only VFR pilots.

48. (Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?

A. Upper limit of the green arc. B. Upper limit of the white arc. C. Lower limit of the white arc.

Figure 4

49. (Refer to Figure 260, area D.) The visibility in central New York just west of Circle D is mostly

A. LIFR – visibility 0 to 1 statute mile. B. IFR – visibility 0 to 1 statute mile. C. MVFR – visibility 3 to 5 statute miles.

Figure 260

50. (Refer to Figure 36.) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway (6, 29, or 32) is acceptable for use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?

A. Runway 6. B. Runway 29. C. Runway 32.

Figure 36

51. (Refer to Figure 21.) What course should be selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS) to make a direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication?

A. 359°. B. 179°. C. 001°.

Figure 21

52. How fast are you flying if you travel 18 miles in 8 minutes?

A. 60 miles per hour. B. 135 miles per hour. C. 180 miles per hour.

53. When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

A. rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path. B. rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport. C. sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

54. (Refer to Figure 26, area 5.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?

A. 122.0 MHz. B. 122.8 MHz. C. 123.6 MHz.

Figure 26

55. (Refer to Figure 28, illustration 5.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?

A. 030°. B. 210°. C. 300°.

Figure 28

56. Which V-speed represents best-angle-of-climb speed?

A. V_A. B. V_X. C. V_Y.

57. Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's

A. lift/drag ratio. B. lifting capacity. C. aerodynamic balance and controllability.

58. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

A. they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B. visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). C. eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.

59. The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

A. clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the airplane counter-clockwise. B. propeller blade descending on the right producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left. C. gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90° in advance of the point the force was applied.

60. A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as

A. spatial disorientation. B. hyperventilation. C. hypoxia.